A 23-year-old man is the next patient you see in the clinic. Under the chief complaint, the nurse has written, “Wants a general checkup.” You enter the room and greet a generally healthy-appearing young, white man, who seems nervous. He finally admits that he has been worried about a lesion on his penis. He denies pain or dysuria. He has never had any sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) and has an otherwise unremarkable medical history. He is afebrile, and his examination is notable for a shallow clean ulcer without exudates or erythema on the shaft of his penis, which is nontender to palpation, and has a cartilaginous consistency. There are some small, nontender, inguinal lymph nodes bilaterally.
1) What is the most likely diagnosis?
2) What is the likely treatment?
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