A 42-year-old man presents to your clinic for evaluation after having preoperative testing performed prior to an elective hernia repair. He has no signs or symptoms of a bleeding disorder, either currently or in his past history. His CBC and aPTT were normal, but his INR is prolonged at 1.8 seconds with a concomitant elevation in his PT.
1: What is your differential diagnosis?
2: Is the intrinsic or extrinsic pathway involved?
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